Welcome to CAPM Simulation Test – 9.
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#1. _____ are the outcomes of the project and can include components of the project management plan.
Answer option b. “Deliverables”. Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.
#2. For the close project process, management control, audit, legislation, and regulations are examples of _____ .
Answer option b. “Expert specialized knowledge”.
#3. People outside the immediate project team may own some risk response actions in the projects. Which interpersonal skills can help the project manager to encourage the risk owners to take necessary actions?
Answer option b. Influencing. Some risk response actions may be owned by people outside the immediate project team or who have other competing demands. The project manager or person responsible for facilitating the risk process may need to exercise influencing to encourage nominated risk owners to take necessary action where required.
#4. _____ outlines and guides the selection of resources and assigns them to their respective activities.
Answer option b. “Acquire Resources”. Acquire Resources is the process of obtaining team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work.
#5. When you are a buyer, you should pay attention to all of the following in Control Procurements process EXCEPT:
Answer option d. Control Procurements is the process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections to contracts as appropriate. The key benefit of this process is that it ensures that both the seller’s and buyer’s performance meet procurement requirements according to the terms of the legal agreement.
Both the buyer and the seller will administer the procurement contract for similar purposes. Each are required to ensure that both parties meet their contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected.
Control Procurements also has a financial management component that involves monitoring payments to the seller.
Procurement audits are one of the tools & techniques used in the Control Procurements process.
#6. _____ involve a relationship between project activities and non-project activities.
Answer option a. “External dependencies”. A relationship between project activities and non-project activities.
#7. “Training for the project team” can be ______ type of cost.
Answer option c. “Could be either Direct or Indirect”. “training costs could be included in the project budget, or supported by the performing organization if the added skills may be useful for future projects” and “indirect costs are those costs that cannot be directly traced to a specific project”. If the training is applicable only to the work of a specific project, then it should be included in that project’s budget and would be considered a Direct Cost. If, on the other hand, the training provides the team with “added skills [that] may be useful for future projects,” the cost of that training is not necessarily attributable to the project and therefore may be considered for accounting purposes as an Indirect Cost. For these reasons, answer option c., Could be either Direct or Indirect, is the correct answer.
#8. Which of the following control procurements process input does describe how to analyze, document and manage contractor requirements?
Answer option c. “Requirements management plan”.
#9. _____ help(s) in managing the control quality activities in a structured manner.
Answer option a. “Checklists”
#10. Which of the following is a tool or technique for the implement risk responses process?
Answer option a. “Influencing”. Interpersonal and team skills that can be used for this process include but are not limited to influencing.
#11. Which of the following is also known as Failure Costs?
Answer option d. Cost of Poor Quality: Cost of Quality is a Tool/Technique used to develop the Plan Quality Management process.
#12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of projects?
Answer option b. “They have an organizational scope that changes with the strategic objectives” is relevant to portfolios, not projects.
#13. Which of the following processes formalize the completed project deliverables acceptance?
Answer option a. “Validate scope” process formalizes the completed project deliverables acceptance.
#14. _____ contains information communicated to risk owners and other affected stakeholders.
Answer option b. “Risk report”. A project document developed progressively throughout the Project Risk Management processes, which summarizes information on individual project risks and the level of overall project risk.
#15. Which of the following is an output of the Control Quality process?
Answer option c. “Quality control measurements”
#16. A project manager of an IT project is working on the “Develop team” process. Among the outputs of the process, which of the following enterprise environmental factors updates should he expect?
Answer option a. “Skill assessments”. “Reduced staff turnover rate” (Answer option b.) is an indicator for a team’s effectiveness. “Training requirements” (Answer option c.) and “Personnel assessment” (Answer option d.) are Organizational process assets updates.
#17. The desired result of the change driven by the project is described as_____
Answer option c. “The future state”. The desired result of the change driven by the project is described as the future state.
#18. _____ is the amount of time a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.
Answer option c. “Lag”. The amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.
#19. You are managing a software project. A junior software developer, David, in your project informs you that his first screen development task will last in nine days in total. The initial estimation for this activity was five days. To check the status of the other developers, you ask status reports and forecasts from your team. This is done in ___________ process group.
Answer option c. Process groups are not stages, they’re a group of processes which means you may perform a monitoring and control process then perform a planning or an execution process iteration. This is a result of the progressive elaboration of projects.
In light of this info, the situation is describing a “Manage team” case. Ad-hoc reports can also be generated in the manage communication process which is also an execution process.
#20. _____ is used to compare requirements to the actual results to determine if a change, corrective action or preventive action is necessary.
Answer option a. “Requirements documentation”. A description of how individual requirements meet the business need for the project.
#21. _____ is an uncertainty existing about some key characteristics of a planned event or activity or decision.
Answer option c. “Variability risk”. Uncertainty exists about some key characteristics of a planned event or activity or decision. Examples of variability risks include: productivity may be above or below target, the number of errors found during testing may be higher or lower than expected, or unseasonal weather conditions may occur during the construction phase.
#22. Critical path method is an important tool for Juan, who tries to develop a schedule for his project. He uses it to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model. What should Juan not consider during this step?
Answer option b. “Activities resource limitations”
#23. For manage communication process, political climate and governance framework are _____ .
Answer option b. “Enterprise environmental factors”
#24. Which of the following is NOT true about the Project Life Cycle?
Answer option b. “Stakeholder influences are greatest towards the end of the project”. Through the process of elimination, answer options a., c., and d. are true and should be removed from consideration. Answer b. contends that the stakeholder influences are greatest at the end of the project, not so, or at least if they are something is dreadfully wrong. Stakeholders should be involved early on in defining requirements and expectations. Those requirements and expectations are used when defining the scope of the project; decomposed into the WBS and again into the activity level setting the schedule and budget in motion. Their early on the agreement to that definition allows the work to progress with a minimum of surprises toward the end of the Project Life Cycle. Toward the end, the stakeholders are updated as to progress, not influencing change.
#25. A project manager is working to identify the need for team development strategies based on variations, if any, during the project execution. Which input should he review?
Answer option b. ”Project schedule”.
#26. A project team functions as a well-organized unit. Which Tuckman ladder stage does this team stand?
Answer option a. “Performing”
#27. _____ documents how the project and product scope will be controlled.
Answer option c. “Scope management plan”
#28. Which of the following is not an output of the “implement risk responses” process?
Answer option b. “Issue log” is an input to the process, not output. The output should be the Issue log update.
#29. _____ describes the communications that are needed for the management of team or physical resources.
Answer option a. “Resource management plan”.
#30. Which of the following is not an output of the implement risk responses process?
Answer option b. “Risk report”
#31. Sally is analyzing and evaluating the quality of the processes and deliverables of the project against the standards of the requirements specified. Which input should she review in this process?
Answer option b. “Quality control measurements”
#32. Templates and monitoring & reporting tools are example of _____ .
Answer option c. “Organizational process assets”
#33. _____ is the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result.
Answer option b. “Product scope”
#34. Which of the following is (sometimes) a disadvantage of Fixed Price contracts?
Answer option d. “Final costs may be more than the final cost on a Cost Reimbursable contract because Sellers often inflate their prices to cover their risk”. Fixed Cost Contracts rely heavily on both the buyer’s and the seller’s technical and cost expertise in the product service or result to be purchased. The seller must include his profit margin at the outset and the buyer’s risk is
minimized in that he knows the total (fixed) price going in. Answers a., b., and c. are clear advantages to either the Buyer or the Seller.
#35. _____ is sometimes called quality assurance.
Answer option b. “Manage Quality”. Manage Quality is sometimes called quality assurance, although Manage Quality has a broader definition than quality assurance as it is used in nonproject work.
#36. If a project SPI=1.05, CPI=1.1, BAC=$150K, EV=$50K, how is the project performing?
Answer option a. “Under planned cost” since CPI =1.1 then the project is under planned cost.
#37. Alex is a project manager closing his internal IT upgrade project. Which is not an input for this process?
Answer option d. ”Lessons learned repository” is not one of Close project inputs
#38. In your project, you are comparing the performance measurement baseline against the actual schedule and cost performance. This is an example of:
Answer option a. Earned value performance compares the performance measurement baseline to actual schedule and cost performance.
#39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of projects?
Answer option b. “Unique product” (Answer option a.), “Temporary” (Answer option c.) and “Drive change” (Answer option d.) are all characteristics of projects. The best answer is “Repetitive in nature” (option b.) is a characteristic of operational activities.
#40. _____ involves information exchange between individuals, typically face-to-face.
Answer option d. “Interpersonal communication”
#41. At which stage does the project manager release the staff from the project?
Answer option d. “Adjourning”. In this phase, the team completes the work and moves on from the project. This typically occurs when staff is released from the project as deliverables are completed or as part of the Close Project or Phase process.
#42. Outputs of the Control Costs process include all of the following except_____ .
Answer option d. Cost Baseline: Control Costs is all about monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and manages changes to the cost baseline. The key advantage is to determine and use variances to take corrective actions and minimize risks. Calculated CV, SV, CPI, SPI, and other EVM values are considered Work Performance Information. Analysis of the Control Costs data, corrective or preventive Change Requests to adjust the Cost Baseline or other PMP components may result. Cost Forecasts, a calculated or re-estimated EAC is documented and communicated to Stakeholders. The exception is the Cost Baseline itself. It is an Output of Determine Budget process.
#43. and considerations for effective communications management include _____ .
Answer option d. “Choice of media”. Decisions about the application of communications artifacts to meet specific project needs, such as when to communicate in writing versus orally, when to prepare an informal memo versus a formal report, and when to use push/pull options and the choice of appropriate technology.
#44. Which of the following is an output for the validate scope process?
Answer option a. “Accepted deliverables”
#45. In the Control Costs process, changes to the project costs can result in change requests to the _______.
Answer option a. Analysis of project performance may result in a change request to the cost baseline or other components of the project management plan.
#46. Key benefits of the “Develop Project Charter” process include all of the following except:
Answer option c. “The Charter formally authorizes the budget of the Project”. Key benefits of developing a Project Charter include answers a., Project Start and boundaries, b., it creates a formal record of the project, and d., it formalizes the acceptance and commitment of Senior Management to the success of the project. While Charter execution does commit the company to financially back the project, it does not define, create or commit to a project budget
#47. Which validate scope process input does describe how to validate the project requirements?
Answer option a. “Requirements management plan” describes how to validate the project requirements
#48. In your project, you use the hierarchical representation of resources by category and type. This is an example of:
Answer option d. The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.
#49. You are working as a project manager in an international company. If a skilled resource in the project team resigns, the risk response plan proposes to acquire a new resource from the IT department. If a skilled resource from the IT department cannot be provided, you will request a resource from the “Regional Expertise Group” of your company. Requesting resource from “Regional Expertise Group” is an example of:
Answer option a. A fallback plan can be developed for implementation if the selected strategy turns out not to be fully effective or if an accepted risk occurs.
#50. IT support desk manager is one of your project’s stakeholders. After applying the planned engagement strategy with the IT support desk manager, his attitude towards the project became less aggressive. She has a better understanding of the project benefits now. What was her previous engagement level?
Answer option b. the case hints that the IT support desk manager was aggressive and does not fully understand the project benefits which means she was “Resistant”.
#51. Which of the following is an example of an intangible business value?
Answer option c. “Brand Recognition”. This is not a value that can be monetized easily.
#52. Which of the following is a model of the development life cycle?
Answer option d. “Iterative” (Answer option a.), “Adaptive” (Answer option b.) and “Predictive” (Answer option c.) are all models of the development life cycle. The best answer is “All of the above” (Answer option d.)
#53. Which of the following is NOT one of Crosby’s Four Absolutes of Quality?
Answer option c. Cost of Quality cannot be measured: According to Crosby, the Cost of Quality, in fact, can be measured. To say that the “Cost of Quality cannot be measured” is, therefore, “NOT one of Crosby’s Four Absolutes of Quality.”
#54. _____ is a significant point or event in a project.
Answer option d. ”Milestone”
#55. _____ is the budget associated with the authorized work that has been completed.
Answer option b. “Earned value (EV)”. (EV) is a measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work. It is the budget associated with the authorized work that has been completed.
#56. _____ is the authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.
Answer option a. “Planned value (PV)”.
#57. A skilled project manager can capitalize on the strengths of all team members. All of the following are interpersonal skills that a project manager uses EXCEPT:
Answer option c. Examples of interpersonal skills that a project manager uses most often include:
- Effective decision making
#58. Which is not an input for the Conduct Procurements process?
Answer option d. “Scope management plan” (Answer option a), “Project schedule” (Answer option b.) and “Procurement documentation” (Answer option c.) are input for the process while “Bidder conferences” (Answer option d.) is a technique.
#59. During procurement closure, a procurement audit includes all of the following except:
Answer option d. Using the payment system to process consideration as per the terms of the contract: Reviewing the contract terms to ensure all have been met, identifying successes and failures (Historical Information and Lessons Learned) answers a., b., and c., are all confirmed completed during the procurement audit. Answer d. using the Payment System is a Tool & Tech used in the Control Procurements process.
#60. _____ is the amount of time a successor activity can advance with respect to a predecessor activity.
Answer option c. “Lead”.
#61. Which of the following deliverables fulfillment of the project objectives may produce?
Answer option d. “Unique capability” (Answer option a.), “Unique product” (Answer option b.) and “Unique result” (Answer option C.) may be produced by projects. The best answer is “All of the above” (Answer option d.).
#62. Whose job is it to determine the priorities among projects in a company?
Answer option c. Senior Management: Project selection methods discussed in the Presentation are part of the Develop Project Charter process. The PMBOK standard highlights that business case assessment, approval and funding are handled external to project boundaries, the starting point when the project is authorized. It is Senior Managers, not Project Managers, who “determine the priorities among projects in a company.” Therefore, by elimination, answer options Project Manager, Sponsor and the Project Team are removed from consideration.
#63. When should a project manager perform Control Procurements process?
Answer option d. “Throughout the project as needed”. Project deliverables, interim milestones, and completed work might trigger the need to perform the control procurements process.
#64. Internal service level agreements (SLAs) is an example of _____ .
Answer option c. “Agreements”. A contract between a service provider (either internal or external) and the end-user that defines the level of service expected from the service provider.
#65. Which of the following is not an input for the monitor risk process?
Answer option c. ”Lessons learned repository”. Examples of project documents that may be inputs for the monitor risks process include but are not limited to:
- Issue log,
- Lessons learned register,
- Risk register, and
- Risk report.
#66. Which of the following is never true about the Define Scope process?
Answer option c. It does not involve negotiation with the stakeholders: Once Requirements are collected and documented, Define Scope selects the final requirements that fit within the deliverables, assumptions and constraints, will and will not be included within in the Project’s and Product’s Scope. The Scope definition is integral to project success, is a detailed description of the project and product and could be (often is) iterative, answers a, b and d. A key Tool & Tech in the Define Scope process is Expert Judgment, SMEs able to analyze the information and develop the scope statement. Such a group includes consultants, technical experts. and stakeholders including customers or sponsors.
#67. The organizational knowledge repositories for storing and retrieving information does not include ____ .
Answer option a. “Governance frameworks”
#68. _____ process helps managing procurement relationships; monitoring contract performance and making changes and corrections as appropriate; and closing out contracts.
Answer option d. “Control Procurements”. Control Procurements is the process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance and making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts.
#69. You are the project manager of a social responsibility project in your city. An anticipated risk has just occurred in the project, and you started to implement the risk response plan associated with the risk. You are performing _______ process.
Answer option a. Monitor Risks is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.
#70. Your project has the following data: • Budget at completion (BAC): $500,000 • Cost Variance (CV): $30,000 • Earned Value (EV): $150,000 • Estimate to Complete (ETC): $300,000 What is to-complete performance index (TCPI) of the project based on given data?
Answer option a. CV=EV-AC
EAC= AC ETC
EAC = $120,000 $300,000
= $350,000/$300,00= 1.167.
#71. You know that making scope definition early is critical in a project. Because the cost impact of a scope change is _______.
Answer option b. The ability to influence cost is greatest at the early stages of the project. Making scope definition early is critical.
#72. Which of the following is not one of the “close project” process’ tools and techniques?
Answer option c. “Regression analysis” (Answer option a.), “Trend analysis” (Answer option b.) and “Document analysis” (Answer option d.) are close project process’ tools and techniques. The best answer is” Quality control measurements” (Answer option c.) is an output of the control quality process.
#73. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Program Management Office?
Answer option c. Responsible for quality audit and assurance across the organization: A Program Management Office could well be responsible for ensuring that projects or programs within its purview achieve a measure of quality. However, being “responsible for quality audit and assurance across the organization” implies a responsibility far beyond the scope of a PMO. This is a responsibility more appropriately owned by the organization’s Quality department, not its PMO. PM Administrative Support, Consolidation of Project Reports, and Coordination of Project Resources, answers a, b, and d all fit in the roles PMO services provide as defined in PMBOK.
#74. Life cycle approach, resource availability and project dimensions are examples of _____ .
Answer option b. “Considerations for tailoring Project Schedule Management”
#75. You are the project manager of an automobile manufacturing project. To reduce the risk of “exceeding stop limit” thresholds, you decided to outsource the braking system of your automobile project to a well-known braking system producer in the industry. This risk response strategy is an example of:
Answer option b. Risk mitigation is a risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk. Adopting less complex processes, conducting more tests, or choosing a more stable supplier are examples of mitigation actions.
In this case, the risk of exceeding braking limit thresholds is mitigated by choosing a more stable supplier in braking systems
#76. _____ is the expected cost to finish all the remaining project work.
Answer option b. “ETC”. Estimate to Complete (ETC) is the expected cost to finish all the remaining project work.
#77. Based on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs pyramid, which of the following is at the top??
Answer option d. Based on Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, people are not motivated to work by security or money. The highest motivation is to contribute and use their skills, self-actualization.
#78. ________ is an example of an external Enterprise Environmental Factor.
Answer option d. “Government and industry standards and regulations”. All of the answer options are Enterprise Environmental Factors. However, the keyword in the question is external; only answer option d., Government and industry standards and regulations, is an external Enterprise Environmental Factors. All of the others are internal Enterprise Environmental Factors.
#79. Project Staff Assignments is an Output of the Acquire Resources process. It is an Input to the .
Answer option a. Develop Team process: This question tests the student’s knowledge of the Resource Knowledge Area processes, their order and their ITOs. Staff Planning and Human Staffing are not among the processes defined by PMI. The Plan Resource Management process defines HOW resources will be identified by need, Acquired, Developed into a team and Managed as a team of individuals. Once acquired the next logical step is Develop Team, and is the only process in which Project Staff Assignments is an Input.
#80. Trademarks, strategic alignment, and reputation are examples of_____ .
Answer option b. “Examples of intangible elements”
#81. Collectively, the project phases are known as ______.
Answer option c. Project Life Cycle: Taken together – or “collectively” – all of the project phases are known as the Project Life Cycle. Answer options a., b., and d. should have been eliminated easily. Project Slack and Float are both Critical Path Method concepts narrowly defined as the amount of time for which an activity or the project itself may slip or be delayed without serious detrimental consequences. Implementation Time, one might reasonably guess, is the time required to complete all activities within the Implementation phase of the Project Life Cycle.
#82. During the project execution, you decided to procure a part of the project scope from an external supplier. To classify this supplier according to directions of influence data-representation technique, which way would you place them?
Answer option c. “Outward”. Stakeholder groups and their representatives outside the project team, such as suppliers, government departments, the public, end-users, and regulators.
#83. Which of the following is NOT a Tool/Technique for the Determine Budget process?
Answer option d. “Resource Calendars”. This question tests the student’s understanding of the ITOs of the Determine Budget process. Through elimination, answer options a., b., and c. may be removed from consideration: all of these are Tools/Techniques of the Determine Budget process. The only exception is option d., Resource Calendars, which is an Output of the Plan Resource Management updated in the Acquire Resource process and used as an input by many other project processes.
#84. The activity “Ship Container” in your network diagram has an early start of day 17, a late start of day 22, and a late finish of day 37. What is the activity duration?
Answer option b. 16 days: The Critical Path Method is a key Tool/Technique in the Develop Schedule process. Activity Duration is always the positive difference between the Early Start date and the Early Finish date minus 1 or the Late Start date and Late Finish date plus 1. In this problem, the scenario provides the Late Start date – day 22 – and the Late Finish date – day 37. Therefore, 37 – 22 = 15 1 = 16, answer option b.
#85. The Tools/Techniques for the Perform Integrated Change Control include:
Answer option b. Expert Judgment, Meetings: Of the four answer options, option b., “Expert Judgment, Meetings,” is the correct answer because it is the more complete answer compared to its closest rivals, option a., “Expert Judgment,” and option c., “Meetings.” Option d., “Change Log, Project Management Plan,” is incorrect because Change Log is an Output and Project Management Plan an Input of this process.
#86. _____ verifies that the project meets the quality requirements.
Answer option c. “Control Quality”. The Control Quality process determines if the project outputs do what they were intended to do. Those outputs need to comply with all applicable standards, requirements, regulations, and specifications.
#87. Which of the following is NOT a Tool/Technique in the Identify Risks process?
Answer option b. “Risk Urgency Assessment”. Identify Risks is all about a., Brainstorming, c., the anonymity of the Delphi technique and d., identifying Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats which can be eliminated from consideration. Once all the risks are identified they are then qualified, where a tool, Risk Urgency Assessment is used to prioritize it among other identified risks on the project.
#88. Which category of contracts involves setting a fixed total price for a defined product or project?
Answer option b. “Fixed-price” involves setting a fixed total price for a defined product.
#89. _____ extend(s) the description of the activity by identifying multiple components associated with each activity.
Answer option b. “Activity attributes” contains details about activities and its description.
#90. What is the key benefit of the Control Procurements process?
Answer option c. “It ensures that both the seller’s and buyer’s performance meet the project’s requirements”
#91. Dan asked his project team to vote on a decision during a meeting in the collect requirements process. The results were 14 votes for developing a new software application, 11 votes for using the existing software application, and 9 votes for procuring an external software application. The team decided to develop a new software application. According to the given votes, in which decision-making technique would they go for developing a new software application?
Answer option d. “Plurality” a decision is reached whereby the largest block in a group decides, even if a majority is not achieved.
#92. During control procurement, procurement documentation may be updated because of _____ .
Answer option b. “Unapproved contract changes” Procurement documentation that may be updated includes the contract with all supporting schedules, requested unapproved contract changes, and approved change requests.
#93. For Project Procurement management processes, changing contracting processes is an example of _____ .
Answer option a. “Emerging practice”.
#94. Requirements can be grouped into classifications allowing for further refinement and detail as the requirements are elaborated. These classifications may not include:
Answer option d. “Project Phase Requirements”. Requirements can be grouped into classifications allowing for further refinement and detail as the requirements are elaborated. These classifications include:
- Business requirements. These describe the higher-level needs of the organization as a whole, such as business issues or opportunities, and reasons why a project has been undertaken.
- Stakeholder requirements. These describe needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group.
- Solution requirements. These describe features, functions, and characteristics of the product, service, or result that will meet the business and stakeholder requirements. Solution requirements are further grouped into functional and nonfunctional requirements:
- Functional requirements. Functional requirements describe the behaviors of the product. Examples include actions, processes, data, and interactions that the product should execute.
- Nonfunctional requirements. Nonfunctional requirements supplement functional requirements and describe the environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective. Examples include: reliability, security, performance, safety, level of service, supportability, retention/purge, etc.
- Transition and readiness requirements. These describe temporary capabilities, such as data conversion and training requirements, needed to transition from the current as-is state to the desired future state.
- Project requirements. These describe the actions, processes, or other conditions the project needs to meet. Examples include milestone dates, contractual obligations, constraints, etc.
- Quality requirements. These capture any condition or criteria needed to validate the successful completion of a project deliverable or fulfillment of other project requirements. Examples include tests, certifications, validations, etc.
#95. In your new project, you have to provide a critical deliverable within five months, and you do not have time to go through the Conduct Procurements process. You decide to sign a contract with a supplier with whom your company has done some work in the past. The risk you are accepting in this situation is:
Answer option a. The ability of the supplier to deliver the goods: In taking multiple-choice tests, it should always be a rule of thumb to stick to the facts presented in the scenario and avoid making assumptions that are not supported by the facts, unless absolutely necessary. To say that this is collusion or lack of proper scope is to make assumptions: there is nothing in the scenario that would support such claims. Answer options b. and c, may be taken out of consideration. Option c. is also incorrect because there is a legally binding agreement: the scenario clearly states there is “a contract with the supplier.” This leaves only option a. as a viable choice. “The ability of the supplier to deliver the goods” is always a risk, anyway – even if you are dealing “with a supplier with whom your company has done some work in the past.
#96. Which of the following is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance?
Answer option a. Cost Baseline: In the question, the keywords are “a phased budget.” Only answer option a., “Cost Baseline,” is synonymous with “a phased budget.” Although “EAC” is a close second, Cost Baseline meets the PMBOK definition and is by far the better answer.
#97. Manage Quality is considered as the work of _____ .
Answer option d. “All of the above”
#98. All of the following processes occur in the Planning Process Group EXCEPT:
Answer option b. Acquire Resources process is belonging to Executing Process Group.
#99. Technology and stakeholder relations and trial engagements are examples of _____ .
Answer option a. “Emerging practices for Project Procurement Management”. Trends and emerging practices for Project Procurement Management include but are not limited to technology and stakeholder relations and trial engagements.
#100. Which of the following processes provides overall management of the project work and deliverables, thus improves the probability of the project success?
Answer option c. “Direct and Manage Project Work” provides overall management of the project work and deliverables, thus improves the probability of project success
#101. As a Project Manager, you need to manage the stakeholders in your project. Which of the following descriptions may contain people not considered as stakeholders?
Answer option b. They are individuals and organizations that support the project are stakeholders: Generically, a stakeholder is defined as ‘an individual, group, organization, who may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity or outcome of a project. Answers a, c, and d clearly meet that definition. Answer b limits itself to supporters of the project but, both supporters or detractors can and should be considered stakeholders.
#102. _____ is about using project processes effectively. It involves following and meeting standards to assure stakeholders that the final product will meet their needs, expectations, and requirements.
Answer option c. “Quality assurance”. Quality assurance is about using project processes effectively. It involves following and meeting standards to assure stakeholders that the final product will meet their needs, expectations, and requirements.
#103. While directing the project work, Alex was assessing the influence of existing facilities and capital equipment on the process. This is an example of _____ .
Answer option b. “Enterprise environmental factors”
#104. Which of the following is an input for the close project process?
Answer option c. “Accepted deliverables”.
#105. The____ is a key input into the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process.
Answer option a. Stakeholder Register: Key inputs to the Stakeholder Management Plan include the Project Management Plan, the Stakeholder Register created in the Identify Stakeholders Initiation process, EEFs and OPAs. The Stakeholder Management Plan is a subsidiary plan of the Project Management Plan when developed as an Output of this process. The Risk Register is an input and Output of many of the risk focused processes and Analytical Techniques are tools, not an input.
#106. All of the following are techniques used for resolving conflict EXCEPT:
Answer option c. There are five general techniques for resolving a conflict.
- Collaborate/Problem Solve
#107. How frequently does a project manager perform the Control Resources process?
Answer option b. “Throughout the project”
#108. _____ process is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables.
Answer option c. “Validate scope” is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables.
#109. Which of the following is NOT a Control Quality Process Tool/Technique?
Answer option a. Quality Audit: Remember Audits are typically used for Process Assurance; Control Quality is all about demonstrating, with evidenced data, the acceptance criteria associated with the product, its correctness has been met. Answers b., c., and d. need to be eliminated from consideration.
#110. A project team is still in the "forming" stage. Which of the following characteristics would the team exhibit?
Answer option a. “Members tend to be independent and not as open”. One of the models used to describe team development is the Tuckman ladder, which includes five stages of development that teams may go through. Although it is common for these stages to occur in order, it is not uncommon for a team to get stuck in a particular stage or regress to an earlier stage. Projects with team members who worked together in the past might skip a stage.
- Forming. This phase is where the team members meet and learn about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities. Team members tend to be independent and not as open in this phase.
- Storming. During this phase, the team begins to address the project work, technical decisions, and the project management approach. If team members are not collaborative or open to differing ideas and perspectives, the environment can become counterproductive.
- Norming. In this phase, team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors to support the team. The team members learn to trust each other.
- Performing. Teams that reach the performing stage function as a well-organized unit. They are interdependent and work through issues smoothly and effectively.
- Adjourning. In this phase, the team completes the work and moves on from the project. This typically occurs when staff is released from the project as deliverables are completed or as part of the Close Project or Phase process.
#111. Which of the following is not an output of the Manage Quality process?
Answer option c. “Quality reports” (Answer option a.), “Test and evaluation documents” (Answer option b.) and “Change requests” (Answer option d.) are outputs of Manage Quality process. The best answer is” Verified deliverables” (Answer option c.) is an output of control Quality.
#112. Which is not an input of the “implement risk responses” process?
Answer option c. “Risk register update” is an output of the process, not an input.
#113. All of the following strategies are applicable for positive risks or opportunities EXCEPT:
Answer option d. Strategies for positive risks or opportunities are:
Mitigate is a strategy for negative risks or threats.
#114. Program management and portfolio management differ from project management in _____ .
Answer option b. ”Life cycles”. Program management and portfolio management differ from project management in their life cycles, activities, objectives, focus, and benefits.
#115. Your project team identified a high-priority opportunity for your project. Your company lacks the required resources to perform the required actions to seize the opportunity. Which risk response strategy would you follow?
Answer option c. ”Share”. Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the opportunity.
#116. Which of the following is a Tool/Technique for the Close Project or Phase process?
Answer option a. Expert Judgment: Through the process of elimination, answer options b., c., and d. can easily be removed from consideration. Options c., “Project Charter,” and d., “Project Management
Plan,” are major Outputs and common Inputs, but never do they appear as Tools/Techniques. Although not as common as the preceding, option b., “Accepted Deliverables,” is also an Output and an Input, but never a Tool/Technique. Only option a., “Expert Judgment,” is a fit.
#117. Which of the following is an input to the Manage Quality process?
Answer option b. “Quality Metrics”. This question tests the student’s understanding and recollection of Quality Management Knowledge Area processes and their ITTOs. Of the options given, answer option b., Quality Metrics, is clearly the Input into the Manage Quality process. Approved Change Requests is an Input of the Control Quality process but not the PQA process. A grade is not an ITO at all but Project Manager should know how Grade differs from Quality. And Resource Calendars is totally out of place here, although it is a very popular Input – Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, Determine Budget, and Develop Team and an Output of two processes (interestingly), Acquire Resources and Conduct Procurements PMBOK from the Qualified Seller List.
#118. During the Conduct Procurements process, all of the following may happen EXCEPT:
Answer option b. Conduct Procurements is the process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.
Making changes and corrections are done during Control Procurements.
#119. As the project progresses, the cost of change is expected to ______ .
Answer option b. “Increase”. Impact of Variable Based on Project Time, shows clearly that the Cost of Changes are typically expected to rise as work progresses from the start to the finish of the Project Life Cycle.
#120. Decomposition is a technique used in the ____ process.
Answer option a. “Define Activities”. This question tests the student’s understanding of the Schedule Management Knowledge Area processes and their ITTOs. Decomposition, a significant Tool/Technique, appears in only two processes: first, in Create WBS; then, in Define Activities
#121. John is developing a detailed description of the project and product. Which process is he performing?
Answer option a. “Define Scope”
#122. The system factors include _____ .
Answer option b. “Organizational structure types”. The system factors include but are not limited to:
- Management elements,
- Governance frameworks, and
- Organizational structure types.
#123. Which of the following are the project constraints defined by PMI?
Answer option a. “Scope, Quality, Schedule, Budget, Resources, and Risk”. By definition, Project Management is balancing the competing project constraints including but not limited to -Scope, Quality, Schedule, Budget, Resources, and Risk.
#124. An example of scope validation is _____ .
Answer option a. “Reviewing the performance acceptability of an installed software module”. Scope Validation is the process in which the client (Customer/Sponsor, etc.) matches the product service or result to the defined Scope and Requirements, answer a. Answer b., managing changes is done in the PICC process; c., Decomposing the WBS is part of the Scope definition process; and d., precedes the creation of the Charter, and is considered outside the boundaries of Project Management.
#125. The use of the knowledgebase portal in a project is an example of _____ .
Answer option a. “Explicit knowledge” is the knowledge that can be codified through images and words, knowledgebase usually consists of this type of knowledge.
#126. Before the initiation of the system upgrade project, the project sponsor is developing a document to authorize further project management activities. Which document would he develop?
Answer option b. “Project business case”. A documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities.
#127. Sam is a project manager seeking to identify all aspects of effective communication, including the choice of appropriate technologies, methods, and techniques. Which process is he performing?
Answer option a. “Manage Communications”
#128. The Close Project or Phase process involves all of the following except____.
Answer option d. “Admin Management”. Final updates to the Project management Plan, Scope, Schedule, risk register, change management and risk impact documents; b., Document reviews associated with validated scope, customer acceptance, contract closure; and the Handover of the product of the project, the deliverables to the customer can be removed from consideration. Admin Management is the odd man out that is not associated with Close Project or Phase.
#129. Which of the following is NOT an Input of the Close Project or Phase process?
Answer option b. Project Management Methodology: Through the process of elimination, answer a., Project Management Plan, c., Accepted Deliverables, and d., Organizational Process Assets, can be removed from consideration – they are all Inputs in the Close Project or Phase process. Only option b, Project Management Methodology, is not an Input, Output or a Tool/Technique to any process.
#130. You are the Project Manager of a time-critical project. One of your sellers is causing you a lot of trouble: most of the seller's deliverables are late and below the agreed quality levels, and you have little confidence in this company's ability to complete the project. What should you do?
Answer option c. “Terminate the seller for convenience and hire another seller”. Conduct Procurements monitors the contracts with sellers providing deliverables required by the project. Performance Details are collected and if it is below (contract) expectations early termination is a reasonable action for default, cause or convenience. All other answers provided are precluded by his delivery history. If project Scope, Cost or Time are in jeopardy, Terminating the agreement is a logical action.
#131. Time to do it right is an example of _____ .
Answer option a. “Prevention Costs”. Prevention Costs include (Build a quality product)
- Document processes
- Time to do it right
#132. _____ show a series of steps that lead to a defect, which helps in manage quality process.
Answer option a. “Flowcharts”. Flowcharts are also referred to as process maps because they display the sequence of steps and the branching possibilities that exist for a process that transforms one or more inputs into one or more outputs.
#133. _____ means the result either conforms or does not conform.
Answer option b. “Attribute sampling”. Project managers may need to be familiar with sampling. Attribute sampling (the result either conforms or does not conform) and variable sampling (the result is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity).
#134. ________ is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan.
Answer option b. Preventive action is an intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan.
#135. Sam is preparing a presentation of the project’s results to demonstrate its compliance with the project scope. Which document can assist him in achieving this objective?
Answer option a. “Requirements documentation” is used to demonstrate compliance with the project scope.
#136. While performing the close project process, you are evaluating how the estimation of duration, cost, resources, and cost control was compared to the actual results. Which input would you need to review?
Answer option b. “Basis of estimates” indicates how the various estimates were derived and can be used to make a decision on how to respond to variances.
#137. _____ contains information about requirements, including how to validate them.
Answer option b. “The requirements traceability matrix”.
#138. You are in the process of selecting a seller and awarding a contract. The process will involve receiving bids or proposals and applying defined selection criteria to select the seller who is qualified to perform the work. All of the following are inputs to this process except:
Answer option c. “Bidder Conferences”. This question tests the student’s understanding of the ITOs of the Conduct Procurements process. Through elimination, answer options a., b., and d. may be removed from consideration: all of these are indeed Inputs in the Conduct Procurements process. The exception here is answer option c., Bidder Conferences, which is a Tool/Technique in the Conduct Procurements process, not an Input.
#139. Oliver is formalizing the acceptance of the completed project deliverables. Which process is he performing?
Answer option c. “Validate Scope”. The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
#140. According to Herzberg’s theory, all of the following are motivating factors except _____.
Answer option d. “Salary” is considered a hygiene factor, not a motivating factor. All of the other answer options are considered motivating factors.
#141. Complexity of procurement and availability of the contractors are examples of _____ .
Answer option b. “Considerations for tailoring Project Procurement Management processes”
#142. Which is not a tool or technique for the Conduct Procurements process?
Answer option a. “Make-or-buy analysis”. Following are the tools and techniques for Conduct Procurements process:
.1 Expert judgment
.3 Bidder conferences
.4 Data analysis
• Proposal evaluation
.5 Interpersonal and team skills
#143. Project cost control includes _____ .
Answer option a. “Monitoring work performance against funds expended”. Project cost control includes:
- Influencing the factors that create changes to the authorized cost baseline;
- Ensuring that all change requests are acted on in a timely manner;
- Managing the actual changes when and as they occur;
- Ensuring that cost expenditures do not exceed the authorized funding by period, by WBS component, by activity, and in total for the project;
- Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline;
- Monitoring work performance against funds expended;
- Preventing unapproved changes from being included in the reported cost or resource usage;
- Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated cost; and
- Bringing expected cost overruns within acceptable limits
#144. The project manager asked Kim to develop a visual representation of the organization’s data described in business language and independent of any specific technology. The objective is to use this representation to identify where data integrity or other quality issues can arise. Which of the following does meet the above request?
Answer option d. “Logical Data Model”
#145. For the projects that are carried out under a formal contract, the principal inputs are ____ .
Answer option a. “Statement of Work and Business Case”. Initiating a Project requires a Project Charter, the document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and empowers the Project manager to apply organizational resources to realize the product service or result. If the source of the work is from an external contract, two required inputs to Develop Project Charter are the Statement of Work (what needs to be done) and the Business case, a document that justifies whether or not doing the work is worth the required investment. Through the process of elimination, answer options b. and c. include the Project Charter which implies the Project has been approved. Answer d. includes a ‘Project Document’ which is too vague to be considered.
#146. The Cost Baseline is an output of _____ Cost Management process.
Answer option c. Determine Budget: The Determine Budget process aggregates the estimated costs of individual activities and/or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline. Estimate Costs looks at individual work packages and activities, Determine Budget puts them together. Estimate duration is concerned with time, how long it will take to perform the work required to produce the deliverable; its Output are inputs to creating the schedule. Control Schedule is a M&C process that compares actual to the baseline to determine variances.
#147. Which of the following is NOT a Tool/Technique of the Define Scope process?
Answer option b. “Constrained Optimization”. Answers a., Facilitated Workshops; c., Alternatives Generation; and d., Product Analysis can be eliminated and removed from consideration as they are indeed tools used to define the scope of a project and its product. Answer b., Constrained Optimization is not a tool used in PMI Processes.
#148. Which of the following is an Input to the Control Procurements process?
Answer option a. Project Management Plan: The Control Procurements process has only two Inputs: Procurement Documents and the Project Management Plan. b., Requirements Documentation is a common input and Output throughout Scope, Time, Quality, and Procurements, but it is not an input to Close Project or Phase. c., Expert Judgment is a common Tool/Technique – but never an Input or Output. The Output of Validate Scope, d., Accepted Deliverables is an Input to only one process, the Close Project or Phase.
#149. _____ includes the examination of industry and specific seller capabilities.
Answer option a. “Market research”
#150. Which quality management trend practice does contain the use of (PDCA) cycle?
Answer option b. ”Continual improvement” Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA). An iterative management method used in organizations to facilitate the control and continual improvement of processes and products.
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